The problem is :
Show that ¬ p → (q → r) and q → (p v r) are logically equivalent.
I'm having trouble proving this with the use of Logical Identities. Any help is much appreciated.
The problem is :
Show that ¬ p → (q → r) and q → (p v r) are logically equivalent.
I'm having trouble proving this with the use of Logical Identities. Any help is much appreciated.
See this can be proved like this.