I need your help to solve my problems. cdf of binomial distribution is defined by: (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binomial_distribution#Cumulative_distribution_function)
https://i.stack.imgur.com/1zkNV.png
So, my problem is:I try to express Ip(k+1,n-k) as below:
http://i.imgur.com/leKAD4B.png
I don't know that formula is true or not true? and my second problem is: Ip ( k+1,n-k) = 1 - I1-p(n-k, k+1) is true or not true. If true,I need your hints to proof that formula.
Ps: p and 1-p are subscript and sorry because I don't have enough condition to attach images Thanks you so much!!!!!!